Quote:
Originally Posted by rbruce1314
OK - Thanks: what have we so far?
Applying what Fluribus quoted, according to his first sentence all second-hand bookshops, Amazon, ebay books ARE illegal. His second sentence CANNOT be used to make the illegal legal - can it??
I'm a scientist not a lawyer and getting very confused...... and if an author's works are said to be 'still in copyright' how does that work when some of the items are over 'death+70' and some not. If fluribus' statement is interpreted in the way he suggests, then an author CANNOT have a blanket copyright: if it's the item itself covered then the law ONLY applies to the thing you have in your hand, not even a second copy of the same thing in your other hand...... ? ? ?
And pdurrant seems to say the same thing here (I am UK BTW):
According to my understanding of that bit, if there's no difference, then the copyright law (printed inside each book) prevents you selling it on, new or second-hand. Or is that fluribus' whole point of being only the item itself that is covered?
As a humble scientist, if I'm wrong on that then I'm grateful to those of you who know so much better and accept what you say unconditionally.
..........which means that I'll not tell you which books I 'did', who I am, where I got them from or anything else  - but I'll leave it to you to guess whether they're leaving my Calibre library . . . . . .  |
No, because they are selling one copy of one book and they will no longer have that copy.
It appears you have confused copyright (what you are allowed to do with the text) with ownership.
99% of my physical books are used. I am in the US so under the fair use law, I would be able to make or have that company that does it make digital copies for me. I couldn't sell the digital copies and if I got rid of the physical copy, legally I would have to get rid of the digital copy.