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Originally Posted by speakingtohe
Take mineral rights for example. If the sales contract says that the seller will retain rights to 20% of the moneys derived from these mineral rights, does this dissapear on resale of the property without your agreement? Maybe it does and I am unaware.
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It's not a good comparison. Contracts dealing with land use rights are a whole different ball of wax, because they generally involve both contracts and easements or other covenants that run with the land.
Perhaps a better analogy is when David Duchovny sued Fox for selling rerun rights to the X-Files to FX, a sister company, for less money than they would have gotten on the open market. This reduced the amount of money he received as his contractual entitlement for such deals. That's basically what the authors are accusing of Harlequin here, but they claim Harlequin far more brazen, and that the Swiss company was basically set up for just this purpose (as well as avoiding taxes).