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Old 06-26-2010, 07:17 PM   #102
tompe
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ATimson View Post
That depends on what rights-based argument you're using. If you're saying that nobody has the right to be taxed, then, yes, that would be independent. If you're saying that nobody has a right to be taxed in a discriminatory manner, then it only applies to people above the lowest tier.
But you have to define "discriminatory manner" and I do not see how to do that in a non-arbitrary manner.
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