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So, if the authors decided on regional contracts (somehow I doubt that though), who's idea was it that the 'place of sale' is the buyers location instead of the shops? Why is this different than in the physical world? Somehow I doubt that this was also decided by the authors.
In other words, who do we need to harass to solve this issue? Is it legal anyway, not only in the country of the shop but also in the country of the wannabee buyer?
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