Quote:
Originally Posted by rwsimon
Not sure this example works. The fruit stand owner only has rights to his apples, not to all apples. Now if the spandex dude started chunking out Apple iPods, then that fruit stand owner Steve Jobs would be quite justified in his shouting...  |
Would he? Why is the situation different? It depends on the "evil"* in the action. If the spandex man gives something away for free to another, why is that act evil? (This isn't a rhetorical question, I really want an answer...) Phrasing the question in that way sort of highlights the issues here: on the face of it, it's *not* an evil act.
Is it evil because the fruit stand owner has been deprived of a sale? Or is there another reason?
*I'm using evil as a clear term for "morally undesirable"