Thread: Does DRM violate the 1st Sale doctrine
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Old 02-22-2010, 10:06 AM   #57
Pardoz
Which side are you on?
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Quote:
Originally Posted by kennyc View Post
That's point exactly, by refusing they have not broken the law, only by going to court can it be determined. Law isn't about could's
As I said, the version I read didn't give ISPs the option - on receipt of three complaints they were required to cut you off, as opposed to the current system where cutting you off on receipt of a complaint is a matter of habitual practice, but not law - but ACTA is so shrouded in secrecy that it's eminently possible my information's out of date or wrong (and that's a whole other problem with it).

And I quite agree, the law isn't (or at least shouldn't be) about coulds, but about dids. My concern is that that important distinction has been being steadily eroded for the past thirty years, on a variety of pretexts of which "protection of intellectual property rights" is only the most recent.
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