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Old 07-09-2007, 01:37 PM   #4
DeusExMe
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Thank you so much for your replies. I am attempting to become educated on this subject matter. Please do not become impatient with me if all of this is second nature to your understanding.

From the Wikipedia (bold, mine):
Quote:
Copyrights are more complex than patents; generally, in current law, the copyright in a published work expires in all countries when any of the following conditions are satisfied (except Colombia, Côte d'Ivoire, Guatemala, Honduras, Mexico, Samoa, and Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, on all these countries are fair use):[2]

* The work was created and first published before January 1, 1923, or at least 95 years before January 1 of the current year, whichever is later;
* The last surviving author died at least 70 years before January 1 of the current year;

* No Berne Convention signatory has passed a perpetual copyright on the work; and
* Neither the United States nor the European Union has passed a copyright term extension since these conditions were last updated. (This must be a condition because the exact numbers in the other conditions depend on the state of the law at any given moment.)
Does this mean that a book published in 1930 is no longer under copyright if its author died in 1932? (These year markers are only examples and not representative of any actual book).
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