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Old 11-30-2009, 06:18 PM   #189
calvin-c
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Shaggy View Post
It's untrue based on a legal definition of the words.
The law should reflect the meanings of word as they are used. Often, it doesn't-which means the *law* is redefining words, not the people who use them.

I'd make two notes about this however. First, it's a comment strictly on your implication that the definition according to the law should override the 'common' definition. (I'd say dictionary definition, but then we'd get into an argument about which dictionary. Saying 'common' definition lets us politely disagree about what that is.)

And my second note is that even though the law may 'mis-define' a term a person would be a fool not to pay attention to how the law does define it. Whether the term is defined 'correctly' or not, you will be convicted (or not) based on how the law defines it.
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