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Old 04-22-2009, 10:17 AM   #33
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Quote:
Originally Posted by HarryT View Post
Sorry, I'm not quite sure that I understand you.

If a work is in copyright, the translation has to be done with the permission of the copyright holder, and the author will get a percentage of the sales of the "foreign" book. Many popular books are translated into dozens of different languages.

If a work is out of copyright, the translation is presumably done because the publisher feels that there is a commercial market for such a work. Anybody can do anything they wish with a work that's in the public domain - including commercially sell it.

Could you explain in more detail what your objections are to the idea of translations?
I'm not objecting the translations themselves.
Nor the translation, with consent of the author, of a copyrighted work.

I'm objecting the copyright on the translation.
By example, if 119 years from now my great-grandson makes lots of money out of royalties for "Romeo and Juliet", he's a "pirate" (or a parasite, at least).
Even if I translated it, and even if it's legal.
Just like mr Lundgren, who's Public Enemy nr.1, event if he don't get a penny out of copies of the books he contributed to spread.

In a fair world, copyright on translation should not exist.
In our word, Good, Law and Right just follow money. They are always where the wealthiest are.

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