[Good Old Neon]

Originally Posted by zerospinboson

While that is an interesting exception, I don't see how that would compensate for, let alone negate, the loss we would've experienced if Shakespeare wouldn't have been allowed to write his own version of R&J. (if you forgive my use of hyperbolae)

Provided he didn’t lift it word for word, why? Again, I’m not trying to be a pain, but is there a portion of the copyright law that does not allow artists to influence each others work? It’s not as if Shakespeare simply erased the other author's name, by replacing it with his own.