According to what I researched, the story did not appear in some early Greek translations, but was in the earliest Latin translations. This was from a conversation I had about this w/ a scriptural scholar:
Quote:
St. Jerome was more than fully aware of the fact that some of the early Greek manuscripts didn't contain the story of the woman caught in adultery. But St. Jerome points out that:
1. Earlier Fathers of the Church were fully familiar with the story, and,
2. All the earliest Latin manuscripts going back to around the year 250 in North Africa have the full text of the Gospel of Luke.
3. Even in the East, it appears in the 3rd century (mid 200's) 'Didascalia Apostolorum', which was written in Syriac - which demonstrates that the story was known in 2nd century Syrian Christianity.
4. The very early Apostolic Father of the Church Papias speaks freely of the story of the woman caught in adultery.
5. St. Jerome - [a Father and Doctor of the Church] in his studies to prepare what became known as 'The Vulgate' - the Bible for the common people who couldn't read Greek -:
Jerome specifically states that he has both Greek and Latin manuscripts containing the story in the Gospel of John. Now Jerome wrote that in the 380's.
6. St Ambrose, Father and Doctor of the Church, who baptized St. Augustine in Milan, Italy, was absolutely fluent in Greek and had access to a vast library of writings of the Church Fathers and Doctors in Greek.
"Ambrose: Bishop of Milan from 374 to 397; born probably 340, at Trier, Arles, or Lyons; died 4 April, 397."
Ambrose - was a scholar of the first rank. He testifies that the story was always famous in the Church. the question came up since there were some Greek copies of the Gospel of John which did not contain the story. But others did.
As a matter of fact, the story appears even in some early copies of St. Luke's Gospel.
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Not to start a debate - just a clarification of my understanding.