Originally Posted by Hitch
Sorry, but, no. See Wheaton v. Peters, 33 U.S. 591 (1834) https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/33/591/ , (130 years prior to the 1970's), in which Justice McLean stated (writing for the majority):
(bold emphasis added).
That a typical dictionary didn't discuss copyright as property is utterly meaningless. There are innumerable legal terms, statutes, etc., that you would not find discussed in the OED (unabridged) today. That is irrelevant.
Copyright has been a PROPERTY right under all applicable laws and statutes and Acts since the Statute of Anne. (And I'm not even getting into the earlier laws and acts, which also discuss it, like the Licensing Act of 1662.) With all due respect, you really are arguing that the sky is not blue and that water is not wet.
Hitch
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