Quote:
Originally Posted by Ralph Sir Edward
I would say from the coffers of the marriage. Same as if the husband was keeping a mistress. The cost came from the same pool. I don't know French law from the 1620's, I do know domestic law varied from country to country, widely. I am familiar with the differences between Spanish domestic law and English common law on the subject, because Texas law is almost totally based upon Spanish law, not English, which comes as a great shock for people relocating to Texas.
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Coverture would have been in effect in the 1600s, which would have put all a married woman's money and personal property under her husband's control. How that played out in day-to-day life, I have no idea, but it seems like it was a lot more complicated than a pool of money from which they could both draw.