Quote:
Originally Posted by Dutchbook
This is not true, copyright has existed for thousands of years and can be directly attributed to Roman law, where (amongst others) a vindicatio usus fructus could be invoked by both the 'naked'-owner and the current owner against third parties that used it without consent. There was actually a complete set of tools that could be used against these kind of wrong-do'ers.
Roman law was the law that seeded the idea that there was a difference between ownership law, property law and intellectual property law, whereas in countries that follow French law (continental Europe, amongst others) there are only 2 flavors: ownership law and property law
So I don't really expect a conclusion to this discussion, considering there are multiple correct answers  |
The Romans did not have a system of copyright. It is arguable that some of the roots of copyright law can be traced back to Roman law. For instance, the Romans did come to recognise intangible rights, mainly rights comparable to modern easements. There is a very interesting discussion here if anyone is interested:
http://digitalcommons.law.umaryland....89&context=mlr