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Originally Posted by dickloraine
Wouldn't sending someone to prison involve an additional trial? With totally different rules? And only if such actions would be punishable on the personal level?
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https://books.google.com/books?id=yS...an-act&f=false
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Section 1 of the Sherman Act does not distinguish between criminal offenses and civil offenses. . . . the practice of the Antitrust Division has been to bring criminal prosecutions only for clear-cut violations of Section 1 . . .
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And the Apple conviction was indeed for Section 1:
http://www.lathropgage.com/newsletter-108.html
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Judge Cote found that Apple’s participation in the horizontal price-fixing conspiracy between five book publishers constituted a per se violation of Section 1 of the Sherman Act.
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So what do people think? Was it not a clear-cut violation? Or was there favoritism towards a big company with many defenders?
Of course, they didn't charge the publishers with criminal anti-trust either, even though the publishers are much smaller than Apple. Was that an example of favortism towards medium sized companies with many defenders? Or was it another case of the Justice Department going after people who weren't clear-cut violators? Defenders of the US legal system are welcome to inform me which it is.