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Originally Posted by HarryT
This has nothing to do with copyright law: it's a matter of tort law - contract law.
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I thought tort law was distinct from contract law. And I thought that copyright law, when not criminal, WAS tort law (i.e. laws pertaining to civil wrongs other than contracts).
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It's not a copyright issue.
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I have not read anything on the case. Are we sure that the rights defined in copyright law are not what informed the judges decision on the validity of the license terms? Seems like it would have to be involved.
ApK