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Originally Posted by tubemonkey
"Clearly this is not true."
It's only not true because society deems it that way. It could just as easily be the opposite.
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The "not true" was referring to the types of property being the same (as opposed to how society confers and maintains ownership rights). In that context I can't see how it's not not true given that they quite simply are different kinds of things.
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And just because the characteristics are different; by no means does that automatically mean that ownership of one form of property should cease after an artificial time period and that of another form of property should not.
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The point of my post was to separate out this question from the idea that both types of property are the same. However on this question I think that the very fact that intellectual property is different means we need to have different laws, even if we want to produce the same effects. And once we do that we open the possibility that they can be treated differently and that raises the question of whether they should. Hence the debate.