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Originally Posted by rsperberg
Long ago it was established that purchasing a a physical copy of a song on tape or record (or later CD) meant you could transfer it to another medium and listen to it. But if you reason consistently and do the same with an e-book -- "I paid for a physical copy of the book; only one person is reading it at a time; I'm not disseminating it, just consuming it in a more convenient medium -- you are characterized the same as someone who sells thousands of copies of the book illegally.
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Ya, but if a person distributes the electronic copy of the book, then its not read by only one person at a time is it?
Would not the onus to prove "that only one person is reading it at a time" be on the person who distributed. And just how will that be done?
