Quote:
Originally Posted by HansTWN
Which the seller does, in this case. They have used pre-approved checking methods to confirm that you are eligible to buy.
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So the seller has acted properly in that they have have good reason to believe that you are eligible to buy. But if you have set out to deliberately deceive the seller as to your eligibility, and therefore induced them to sell to you in breach of their own agreements with their suppliers, can you be said to have acted equally properly?