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Originally Posted by Ak Mike
RickyMaveety - now you want me to do some real work! I think you probably agree with me that there is a strong individualist strain in American culture, and also that this country affords a much broader right of judicial remedy for individuals than other countries do (it's the source of many complaints about our lawyer-dominate culture - but lawyers can only do what the courts and legislatures let them do).
With respect, you are wrong in your suggestion in yesterday's post that where you can sue depends on where the injury occurred. You can sue anyone anywhere where you can get personal jurisdiction, at least in the U.S. I can sue you in California for an automobile accident that occurred in France. You can sue me in New York for breaking a contract with you in Turkey. I am confident that I could sue you in a Dutch court for slandering me in Illinois. What law applies may be an open question, but the courts in any jurisdiction are not limited to resolving disputes that arose in that jurisdiction.
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Now, just to be clear .... this is where my question lies .... just with the red highlighted portion. I want to know where either or both personal jurisdiction and subject matter jurisdiction would lie with the Dutch court.
Just that .... nothing more. Either your confidence in being able to do that is based in reality, or you were just talking off the top of your head. I'm just curious to know which it is.
Just re-read International Shoe, but it doesn't seem to deal with the courts of the Netherlands and slander in Illinois. I'm not even sure there is anything in there that is particularly on point.