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Originally Posted by caleb72
I'm not sure I understood the point about the recent ruling:
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LAST month, the Supreme Court decided to allow the importation and resale of foreign editions of American works, which are often cheaper than domestic editions. Until now, courts have forbidden such activity as a violation of copyright. Not only does this ruling open the gates to a surge in cheap imports, but since they will be sold in a secondary market, authors won’t get royalties.
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Doesn't someone (importer) have to purchase the foreign editions and therefore generate royalties for the author? |
More important, the publisher has to deliberately print those books in foreign countries for them to be bought there.
That ruling will have very little effect on anyone anywhere. To the extent that it does have an effect, it will result in publishers tending to print books only in the most lucrative markets - the US.
(And I have no idea where he got the idea that such gray market imports have been illegal up until now, unless he's talking about that particular case until it got to SCOTUS - rulings that never were case law, and so far as I know, were never actually in effect because they were being appealed. The publisher in that case reached - beyond their grasp. They lose, and rightly so.)