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wyndslash · 08-26-2012, 08:54 PM

i have a question (since math easily stumps me, lol). let's say in a grading system, quizzes make up 40% of the grade. would you get a different score in the quizzes if the 40% was further broken down into, let's say, 30% for solving and 10% for explanation?

would this be a correct way to solve for it? let's say, one quiz is for 50 pts, so if you go by the first method and you get 40/50, then you get 32% of the 40%.

but if going by the second method of a further breakdown (same final score of 40/50):
let's say that for part I (solving), it's over 30, and you get 30/30
for part 2 (explanation), it's over 20, and you get 10/20

since part 1 is 30% and you got perfect there, you already get 30%
part 2 is 10% and you got 10/20, you get 5%

so that's a total of 35%, as compared to 32% if we go by the first method.

does that make any sense? i'm rather confused, lol.

08-26-2012, 08:54 PM	#34367
wyndslash Wizard Posts: 2,951 Karma: 3000001 Join Date: Feb 2011 Device: Kindle 3 wifi, Kindle Fire	i have a question (since math easily stumps me, lol). let's say in a grading system, quizzes make up 40% of the grade. would you get a different score in the quizzes if the 40% was further broken down into, let's say, 30% for solving and 10% for explanation? would this be a correct way to solve for it? let's say, one quiz is for 50 pts, so if you go by the first method and you get 40/50, then you get 32% of the 40%. but if going by the second method of a further breakdown (same final score of 40/50): let's say that for part I (solving), it's over 30, and you get 30/30 for part 2 (explanation), it's over 20, and you get 10/20 since part 1 is 30% and you got perfect there, you already get 30% part 2 is 10% and you got 10/20, you get 5% so that's a total of 35%, as compared to 32% if we go by the first method. does that make any sense? i'm rather confused, lol.