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Originally Posted by murraypaul
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This always confused me about the talk about Apple's 'Most Favoured' status in these contracts. If everybody has to sell at the same price, how is any one retailer more favoured than any other?
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One of Apple's arguments in a nutshell.
It really should be called a "no-undercutting -by competing retailer" clause, but that doesn't roll "trippingly " off the tongue.