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If you wish to assert that a monarch giving specific rights to a specific person for a specific work is the same as a general assigning of rights to all authors, then you are welcome to do so. I disagree. I've explained what I was talking about in my initial post and explained why I consider to two concepts different. Once again, I was and am talking about the general assignment of rights to all authors, not just a ruler giving a monopoly to a specific person the rights to copy, i.e. publish, a specific work which that person may or may not have been the author.
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