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Old 05-25-2008, 03:20 PM   #36
Patricia
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See this for more information:
http://grammartips.homestead.com/prepositions1.html

This 'rule' only came in during the 18th century. I blame Dr Johnson for attempting to impose a Latinate structure upon English when he compiled the first dictionary. (However, I do admire his writing, and quite like his Latinisms. But there is a place for Ango-Saxon and Middle English forms too.)

In the UK it is noticeable that many legal terms are repeated in both Anglo-Saxon and Latinate versions, so as to avoid get-out clauses. Hence 'without let or hindrance' which is otherwise a mysterious duplication.
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