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Old 12-19-2011, 06:19 AM   #23
Sweetpea
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Quote:
Originally Posted by HarryT View Post
Quite simply "money". An author can get more money by signing with, say, a separate US and UK publisher, than by giving US and UK rights to a single publisher. Eg, they'll get a separate advance from each publisher.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Quexos View Post
Unfortunately this means the interest of the author and those of the reader are no longer the same. This sheds new light on the moral grounds for piracy IMO.
If the author (or publishers) fight for their rights and their interests, the reader or consumer has the moral right to fight for his own rights and if any given book is not available due to artificial reasons such as geo-restrictions, this is not the consumer's problem and he/she is morally (for lack of "legally") entitled to fight for his right to read any given book by whatever means available (again IMO)
What you're describing here isn't the situation where the author has separate publishers. But what if the author doesn't care whether all of his publishers in total have world-wide coverage?

There are books that I am not allowed to buy from the UK and not from the US. Why? I'd have thought at least that the UK publisher would also cover all non-English speaking EU countries. But apparently this is not so. Then who does hold the rights for those countries, as often I'm also not allowed to buy those books from the US publishers...
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