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Old 12-06-2011, 06:42 AM   #34
murraypaul
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Quote:
Originally Posted by HarryT View Post
News to me. Very happy to be proved wrong about it, though!
I suspect it doesn't apply to US works because we have some sort of bilateral agreement in place, as Germany did in the example given.

Edit: From Wikipedia:
Quote:
Bilateral treaties
Following the Chace International Copyright Act, which was signed into law on March 3, 1891 and which became effective on July 1 of the same year, the United States concluded a number of bilateral copyright treaties with foreign countries. In 1891, treaties with Belgium, France, Spain, and the United Kingdom became effective; 1892 followed treaties with Germany and Italy; in 1893, with Denmark and Portugal; in 1896 with Chile and Mexico, and in 1899 with Costa Rica and the Netherlands. These treaties remained effective even after the 1976 Copyright Act unless "terminated, suspended, or revised by the President".[15] The treaty from 1892 with Germany was applied in a court case in Germany in 2003.[16]
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