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Old 07-25-2011, 10:08 PM   #4
crich70
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The only thing I can think of is that if it were a translation from one language to another and the translation was fairly recent then although the original work wouldn't be under copyright the translation might still be. So if someone produced a new translation of the Iliad for example from the original Greek then that might be considered to be under copyright although Homer's work itself is certainly pre- 1923 material.
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