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Given, though, that they do charge sales tax to some people already, I honestly don't see how it would cost them anything. As far as they're concerned, it's probably no more than setting some flag in a database somewhere.
Am I right in thinking that the "rule" is that they have to charge sales tax if they have a physical presence in a state? If that's so, and they have an office somewhere in Texas, it seems pretty unambiguous that they would then need to charge sales tax in Texas. Where's the "loophole" that allows them not to do so?
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