[Only tangible goods can be "stolen]
Quote:
Originally Posted by Andrew H.
No. That's not true at all.
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It is in most jurisdictions; one of the landmark cases is
Oxford vs. Moss. It's certainly used that way in legal circles.
That seems to be the Indiana Criminal Code? Regardless of their definition (didn't read too closely) I can quote at least a dozen other codes that use the traditional one. Legal scholars usually do.
Calling violations of copyright "theft" is only marginally better than "piracy".