Quote:
Originally Posted by rogue_librarian
Come again? I certainly don't consider accuracy in expression "unsophisticated". And, yes, "theft" is very clearly defined to only apply to tangible goods. Once you steal something the original owner no longer has it.
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No. That's not true at all.
35-41-1-23
Sec. 23. (a) "Property" means anything of value. The term includes:
(1) a gain or advantage or anything that might reasonably be regarded as such by the beneficiary;
(2) real property, personal property, money, labor, and services;
(3) intangibles;
(4) commercial instruments;
(5) written instruments concerning labor, services, or property;
(6) written instruments otherwise of value to the owner, such as a public record, deed, will, credit card, or letter of credit;
(7) a signature to a written instrument;
(8) extension of credit;
(9) trade secrets;
(10) contract rights, choses-in-action, and other interests in or claims to wealth;
(11) electricity, gas, oil, and water;
(12) captured or domestic animals, birds, and fish;
(13) food and drink; and
(14) human remains.
(b) Property is that "of another person" if the other person has a possessory or proprietary interest in it, even if an accused person also has an interest in that property.
35-43-4-2
Sec. 2. (a) A person who knowingly or intentionally exerts unauthorized control over property of another person, with intent to deprive the other person of any part of its value or use, commits theft, a Class D felony.