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Old 01-06-2011, 10:22 AM   #44
MrsJoseph
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Quote:
Originally Posted by luqmaninbmore View Post
That seemed odd to me as well. I don't think "injun" is meant as a separate slur apart from Indian, at least in Twain's time. I think it's just a dialectical pronunciation.
Also, isn't "Native American" the PC version of "Indian?" Shouldn't the re-writer (because I can't call him the author) replace "injun" with "Native American" instead?
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