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Old 10-23-2010, 04:38 AM   #34
HarryT
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Quote:
Originally Posted by SneakySnake View Post
Why is it that 'oblivious to' sounds OK, when 'unaware to' sounds wrong?

Is it the common use thing again?
Which preposition follows a verb is essentially arbitrary, and varies from language to language. When I was learning German I would, for a long time, try to use the English prepositions, and get very funny looks from people. Eg, in English you search for something; in German you search after something.

It's just a matter of learning what preposition a given verb takes; there's little (if any) logic to it.
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