Quote:
Originally Posted by EatingPie
Yes I know. But, once again, WT Sharpe's statement is a logical fallacy. You cannot prove "virtually unanimity" of anything -- or any other statistical amount, even a majority (which I would highly doubt anyway).
He used the word "virtual" because he could not say "unanimity," as it only takes one citation to refute that (and I've already provided it, by citing Bruce Metzger).
It's a phrasing that made his argument sound strong. But in logical sense it is completely and utterly unsound.
-Pie
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From
Wikipedia:
Colloquially, 'virtual' is used to mean almost, particularly when used in the adverbial form e.g. "That's virtually [almost] impossible".
There is no logical fallacy in what I said, and I've already apologized for being somewhat hyperbolic in my original statement. There's no need to
