Quote:
Originally Posted by WT Sharpe
Although it's probably true that most Bible-believers believe the author was referring to the Bible as a whole, I believe the author of those words intended them to refer only to his Book of Revelation; not the entire collection we know today as the Christian Bible. Remember; most scholars believe it was written toward the close of the first century, when there was not as yet a universally accepted New Testament canon.
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Yes, it's pretty obvious that the author is referring to his own "book of prophesy". The disparate collection of texts that now forms the "New Testament" wasn't formally "finalized" until the Council of Tent in 1546.