06-23-2010, 04:52 PM | #46 | |
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06-23-2010, 05:43 PM | #47 | |
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06-23-2010, 09:25 PM | #48 |
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Is the VAT the same in England, Wales, Scotland, NI, Isle of Man, Channel Isles?
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06-23-2010, 10:22 PM | #49 | |
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06-23-2010, 10:26 PM | #50 |
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It's the same everywhere except the Channel Islands, which are not a part of the EU, and don't have VAT. I'm not sure about the Isle of Man; it has some funny tax laws, but I believe it has VAT; I'm sure that someone will correct me if I'm wrong.
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06-23-2010, 10:41 PM | #51 |
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My poor European readers are already annoyed with the $2 sur-charge Amazon tacks on, they are being abused. They actually E-mail me about it, like I can do anything about it. They pay $3 and I get 0.35 cents.
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06-23-2010, 10:45 PM | #52 |
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It's simply a data roaming charge, and only applies in those countries where Amazon hasn't reached some sort of agreement with local telecoms operators. Amazon stopped charging the $2 to UK customers a couple of months ago, for example. It's not a European thing, but an "outside the USA" thing.
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06-23-2010, 11:57 PM | #53 |
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I never liked the VAT or sales tax as we call it here in the states. I feel these taxes are regressive and disproportionately affect lower income people. Income taxes are fairer. If you make money one year then you owe a tax. If you had a bad year then you get a break.
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06-24-2010, 04:21 AM | #54 |
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VAT was invented because very high sales taxes and tariffs encourage cheating and smuggling, according to Wikipedia ...
It is a direct tax on consumers, treats everyone "fairly", especially where some products are 0% or a few % rated. Businesses on the other hand are able to claim back the VAT charged during inter business transactions. Makes it a costly exercise to manage, I would think. I, too, agree that income tax is a fairer way to tax the individual - your money is taxed only once, that way you have more money in your pocket and importantly you chose what to spend it on. Although the income tax rate would have to rise ..... !!!! |
06-24-2010, 04:30 AM | #55 | |
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06-24-2010, 04:33 AM | #56 | |
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Capital gains, why should one not 'benefit' from a financial improvement ? These extra taxes cost money to collect .... and currently are a bittie confusing .... |
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06-24-2010, 04:47 AM | #57 |
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They should benefit but why should that not be taxed? And why should gains from selling off assets that have appreciated or gains from inheritance not be taxed before income from labor which is presumed to have social benefit.
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06-24-2010, 05:08 AM | #58 |
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If I were to buy a Picasso for £10m (say) and in 2 years time it appreciates to £15m, I have gained £5m.
However if, in that 2 years, it depreciates to £5m, then I have lost £5m..... Why should I be penalised for my asset gaining in value when I would not be compensated for a loss ? ... |
06-24-2010, 05:25 AM | #59 | |
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I'm under the assumption that earning income though some kind of labor is more beneficial than waiting for something to appreciate and then selling it. I'm under the assumption that inheritance money has less social benefit than earned money. So I would tax the earned money less than the unearned. |
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06-24-2010, 05:42 AM | #60 |
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In my scenario I am assuming that after 2 years, I would sell ... capital gain losses are (as far as I understand it in the UK) not tax deductible, for me as an individual.
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