[billyad2000]

The article makes the point that the 4.5% advantage of the iPad over the kindle was "not statistically significant."

If the 4.5% difference between the iPad and the Kindle is so insignificant I have to wonder if the 6.2% difference between a paper book and the iPad is significant.

At exactly what point does the difference become significant enough to matter.

Just the figures:
average
17m 20s
=1040s

iPad
+ 6.2%
=1104.48s
=18m 24s 48ms

Kindle 2
+ 10.7%
=1151.28s
=19m 11s 38ms

"The difference [between reading times on the iPad and Kindle 2] would be so small that it wouldn't be a reason to buy one over the other," Nielsen wrote.

Since the difference between the iPad and Kindle 2 is only a little more than the difference between the iPad and a paper book, does this mean that this is no reason to choose a paper book over the iPad.