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Originally Posted by DaleDe
Jon believes the exemption intended for blind automatically extends to everyone in the USA. I doubt his opinion would stand up in court but he expresses it often enough to make it seem true. I am sure I have read it at least 100 times now.
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I agree this has gone around many, many times... but the law does not say you have to be blind in order for the exemptions to apply. It only says that you are "adversely affected". It doesn't even say you have to have a disability, etc. We'll probably never really know what "adversely affected" means until it's tested in courts.
You could easily present the argument that DRM is preventing me from doing what would otherwise be fair use. Does that mean I'm adversely affected? It sure sounds like it, but what would a judge say?