Originally Posted by rlauzon
That is unproven. For that to be true, you must prove that everyone who pirated the eBook would (and could) have purchased the real book.
Would it not be more correct to say that you must prove that anyone
who pirated the eBook would (and could) have purchased a legal copy? I would think that a publisher might object to "some" lost sales as well as assuming that all pirated copies resulted in lost sales.
Not that I think that any authors or publishers have been seriously hurt by book filesharing, mind. I do think that most people who get digital copies of books either buy (or have already bought) a paper copy, or would not have paid in any case, and often people buy the book after reading the digital version, or buy more books by the same author. But I see no reason to speak in absolutist terms about piracy, in either direction.