Originally Posted by 6charlong
If these books are watermarked, why do they go to the expense of putting DRM on them? Just wondering.
Possibly for prosecution. Although laws are probably different in European courts in the US you can't 'entice' somebody into committing a crime. If you want to prosecute then you need to take 'normal' defensive measures. Not all courts draw the line in the same place but there have been cases where a charge of trespassing has been dismissed because there were no signs on the property prohibiting it. AFAIK there have been no cases of theft dismissed for similar reasons so the rulings might not apply (even if European laws are the same) but the prudent course would be to assume they do & 'post a sign' by putting DRM on the books.