Originally Posted by jjallenupthehill
Of course. Statement 1 is expressing a personal view. Statement 2 is an 'insult'. It may be a mild one.
The fact that I am an Apple customer doesn't change the fact that I agree with both points, but it also doesn't change the fact that the second term is perjorative.
Both statements 1 & 2 are expressions of personal views. The latter part of statement 1 is the very definition
of the term used in statement 2. So how can statement 1 be OK but not statement 2?