Originally Posted by taustin
According to the court ruling, not, he didn't sell it legally.
It will have pretty much not effect at all, outside of a small number of people looking to get rich quick. This ruling only affects goods bought in countries that aren't part of the Berne convention (which there aren't many of), and isn't precedent anyway (and isn't likely to be).
Not sure what to say to this. He bought it overseas legally, and, he went through legal channels to sell merchandise that, again, he had bought legally. He did not steal it. I can't see how this ruling WON'T be overturned.
And, I don't see any mention of this ONLY applying to goods bought in countries that aren't part of the Berne convention. It says that the right of first sale ONLY applies to goods manufactured here in the US, and not "overseas." I didn't see any sort of specification of which overseas countries it did NOT apply to.