Originally Posted by HarryT
One example of a situation where you don't have resale rights would be if you were to buy a counterfeit item which is violating someone's trademark. You don't have the right to legally resell it, even if you bought it totally innocently.
That's a good point. If I innocently bought something that was stolen I wouldn't have the right to resell it either. Nor would I have the right to resell a book of which someone made an unauthorized copy. I don't know if these examples apply here though. In this case, someone bought something legally. He did own it. It wasn't stolen or counterfeit or copied illegally. There was nothing wrong with his purchase. Yet, the people who sold him the goods are retroactively making the claim he can't sell the goods, and courts are agreeing. I just don't think that's right.