Originally Posted by whitearrow
The first sale doctrine is a copyright doctrine. Cars aren't subject to copyright because they aren't works of authorship.
That makes sense, but what about trademarks? From the articles it sounds like this applies to trademarks as well, so cars, iPhones, and pretty much all goods with a trademark would be affected. For example, Harry mentioned that there are already limits on athletic shoes in the U.K.
As I'm rereading the articles, it sounds to me that if I buy a product overseas then First Sell doctrine doesn't apply to me. If I buy the product in the U.S. then I do maintain the rights of First Sell. However, this leads to gray areas such as, do I have the right of First Sell if I buy something in the U.S. but unknown to me the person I bought it from imported it and didn't have the right of First Sell.
More importantly, why should it matter? If I buy something, it is mine. It shouldn't matter if I bought it in Thailand or Texas. Unless I was required to sign some agreement that I wouldn't resell the item I bought then it should be mine to do with as I please. Of course, in the case of books, I own a copy of that book and not the right to the text and thoughts, so I can't make copies of it and sell it, but reselling the copy (the actual book) that I bought should be my right. Otherwise, I don't really own the item that I bought.