Originally Posted by heySkippy
Just because you define "theft" using an antiquated paradigm doesn't mean everyone does.
The above is an assertion that, looks to me, as if you are trying to be insulting. It is not a not avalid argument to put forward in a discussion as that "antiquated paradigm" is still the basis of much current law.
It would be equally valid to say that that you define theft according to a personal ideosycratic paradigm